Notice that even s(p) = 0, s_p could still be nonzero.
Example. We give an example to illustrate the fact that two sections become the same element in the stalk at p iff they restrict to the same section on a neighborhood of p (but not that they agree pointwise) (Of course, this is simply by definition of stalk).
Let X = \text{Spec} A. Two global sections f, g \in A satisfies f_p = g_p iff f_p - g_p is 0 in A_p. So let's look at the kernel of A \to A_p.
These consist of s \in A such that h s = 0 for some h \not \in p. Thus s is 0 on D(h), which is a neighborhood of p. Thus if s_p = 0 then s vanishes on a neighborhood of p.
The converse is not true.
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We see that if s_p = 0 then s is 0 on a neighborhood of p and thus s(p) = 0. Is the converse true?
The answer is No. Warning:
s(p) = 0 \not \implies s_p = 0.
Example. Let X = \text{Spec} k[x]/(x^2). Then X has only one point, but there are extra first derivative vectors at the single point of X also. As in, two global sections of X are identical iff they agree on points of X and also have the same first derivative. Now let s = x. At the point p= (x), we have s(p) is 0 in A/(x) (or equivalent, in \text{Frac} A/(x) = A_{(x)}/(x)). However s_p is not 0 in A_{(x)} = (k[x])_{(x)}/(x^2). This is because s= x is 0 in the latter iff x f = x^2 g for some f \not \in (x), which is impossible as k[x] is a UFD. Thus \text{Supp} s = X.
Intuitively, what happened is that for s_p to be 0, s needs to be 0 on a neighborhood of p. In our case, a neighborhood of p would include the extra derivatives at p. So since s only vanish at p with order 1, its stalk at p is not 0.
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